Posts Tagged ‘text books’
December 1st, 2008 | 
Author: Building Scalable Cisco InternetWorks (BSCI)
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Question 1# – Router ZXBP47 has been configured to filter routes. Which of the following are reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three)
A. To hide certain networks from the rest of the organization.
B. For easier implementation.
C. To control network overhead on the wire.
D. For simple security.
E. To prevent adjacencies from forming.
______________________
Question 2# – What are the basic configuration steps needed to enable IS-IS?
A. Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
B. Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
C. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under router isis .
D. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis .
E. Configure the net system.-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
______________________
Question 3# – A network administrator has decided to use IS-IS instead of OSPF in the ABC.com network. Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Select three)
A. IS-IS requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network
B. IS-IS supports more routers in an area
C. IS-IS supports route tags
D. IS-IS does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
E. IS-IS produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
F. IS-IS supports network layer protocols other than IP
______________________
Questions 4# – When designing OSPF networks, it is not recommended to have an excessive number of routers in any single area. Which two of the following statements describe the consequences of having too many routers in an area? (Select two)
A. Excessive LSA traffic.
B. Frequent routing table recalculation.
C. Frequent adjacencies table recalculation.
D. Unacceptable number of reachability errors.
______________________
Question 5# – You want router one of the OSPF areas on your network to be able to accept type 7 external routers, but not type 5 external routes. What kind of area should be configured to accomplish this?
A. A not-so stubby area
B. A stubby area
C. A totally stubby area
D. A backbone area
E. An on-demand area
______________________
Question 6# – EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol within the ABC.com network. There is an issue with EIGRP in this network and you suspect the problem lies with the DUAL process. Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Select two)
A. EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process.
B. An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C. A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only after all the query requests have been replied to.
D. The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
E. DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown state.
F. An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP topology table.
______________________
Question 7# – What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
______________________
Question 8# – EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol within the ABC.com network. Which two of the following features allow EIGRP to support classless routing? (Select two)
A. Djikstra’s algorithm
B. discontiguous subnets
C. variable length subnet masks
D. periodic update announcements
E. unequal path-cost load balancing
______________________
Question 9# – Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco-proprietary routing protocol based on IGRP.
A. True
B. false
______________________
Question 10# – You need to alter the metrics of certain EIGRP routes in the ABC.com network. Which two parameters are used by default to compute the EIGRP metric? (Select two)
A. MTU
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. reliability
E. load
F. Interface up time
______________________
ANSWERS
Question 1# – Correct Answers: A,C,D
Question 2# – Correct Answers: A
Question 3# – Correct Answers: B,E,F
Question 4# – Correct Answers: A,B
Question 5# – Correct Answers: A
Question 6# – Correct Answers: D,F
Question 7# – Correct Answers: F
Question 8# – Correct Answers: B,C
Question 9# – Correct Answers: A
Question 10# – Correct Answers: B,C
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: Cisco CCNP Certification Practice Exam: 642-901 – 10 questions
Certified Information Systems Security Professional
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Question 1# – Which element must computer evidence have to be admissible in court?
A.) It must be relevant
B.) It must be annotated
C.) It must be printed
D.) t must contain source code
_____________________
Question 2# – What principle requires that a user be given no more privilege then necessary to perform a job?
A. Principle of aggregate privilege.
B. Principle of most privilege.
C. Principle of effective privilege.
D. Principle of least privilege.
_____________________
Question 3# – One method to simplify the administration of access controls is to group
A. Capabilities and privileges
B. Objects and subjects
C. Programs and transactions
D. Administrators and managers
_____________________
Question 4# – What is the act of willfully changing data, using fraudulent input or removal of controls called?
A. Data diddling
B. Data contaminating
C. Data capturing
D. Data trashing
_____________________
Question 5# – What should be the size of a Trusted Computer Base?
A. Small – in order to permit it to be implemented in all critical system components without using excessive resources.
B. Small – in order to facilitate the detailed analysis necessary to prove that it meets design requirements.
C. Large – in order to accommodate the implementation of future updates without incurring the time and expense of recertification.
D. Large – in order to enable it to protect the potentially large number of resources in a typical commercial system environment.
_____________________
Question 6# – What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in which it is installed?
A.) Configuration error
B.) Environmental error
C.) Access validation error
D.) Exceptional condition handling error
_____________________
Question 7# – Which one of the following describes a reference monitor?
A. Access control concept that refers to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects.
B. Audit concept that refers to monitoring and recording of all accesses to objects by subjects.
C. Identification concept that refers to the comparison of material
supplied by a user with its reference profile.
D. Network control concept that distributes the authorization of subject accesses to objects.
_____________________
Question 8# – Fault tolerance countermeasures are designed to combat threats to
A.) an uninterruptible power supply
B.) backup and retention capability
C.) design reliability
D.) data integrity
_____________________
Question 9# – The Common Criteria construct which allows prospective consumers or developers to create standardized sets of security requirements to meet there needs is
A. a Protection Profile (PP).
B. a Security Target (ST).
C. an evaluation Assurance Level (EAL).
D. a Security Functionality Component Catalog (SFCC).
_____________________
Question 10# – According to Common Criteria, what can be described as an intermediate combination of security requirement components?
A.) Protection profile (PP)
B.) Security target (ST)
C.) Package
D.) The Target of Evaluation (TOE)
_____________________
ANSWERS
Question 11# – Correct Answers: A
Question 12# – Correct Answers: D
Question 13# – Correct Answers: B
Question 14# – Correct Answers: A
Question 15# – Correct Answers: B
Question 16# – Correct Answers: B
Question 17# – Correct Answers: A
Question 18# – Correct Answers: C
Question 19# – Correct Answers: A
Question 20# – Correct Answers: C
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: CISSP Practice Exam – 10 practice questions
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 15 True/False exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Q.1 – Primary and extended are the two basic types of partitions. True/False
Q.2 – Toggle keys help people with physical limitations. Toggle keys prevent the need for these people to have to hold down two or more keys. True/False
Q.3 – In a peer-to-peer network, the components that will need to be installed are Client, Protocol, NIC. True/False
Q.4 – A POST error beginning with 3, indicates a problem with the keyboard. True/False
Q.5 – sfc.exe is the utility used to check System Files. True/False
Q.6 – Kerberos is used to encrypt the user authentication process over a LAN. True/False
Q.7 – In the laser printing process, the transferring stage comes after the fusing stage. True/False
Q.8 – 2 IDE controllers can be attached to a motherboard. True/False
Q.9 – The default port used for HTTP is 82. True/False
Q.10 – 2 IDE controllers on your system indicates that you can have two hard drives. True/False
Q.11 – In the laser printing process, the primary purpose of the transfer corona is to charge the paper so that the toner sticks to it. True/False
Q.12 – In an EP laser printer, to transfer the toner to the paper +600VDC voltage is required. True/False
Q.13 – Having a Heat sink and fan in your computer are the most common methods of cooling the CPU. True/False
Q.14 – USB stands for Unified Serial Bus. True/False
Q.15 – Grayware is a type of Malware. True/False
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Comptia Exam Preparation A plus Essentials Answers
The questions along with the answers are included in this comptia exam preparation for your better convenience
Q.1 – Primary and extended are the two basic types of partitions. True/False
True
Q.2 – Toggle keys help people with physical limitations. Toggle keys prevent the need for these people to have to hold down two or more keys. True/False
False. These keyes are called Sticky Keys and not Toggle keys.
Q.3 – In a peer-to-peer network, the components that will need to be installed are Client, Protocol, NIC. True/False
True
Q.4 – A POST error beginning with 3, indicates a problem with the keyboard. True/False
True
Q.5 – sfc.exe is the utility used to check System Files. True/False
True
Q.6 – Kerberos is used to encrypt the user authentication process over a LAN. True/False
True
Q.7 – In the laser printing process, the transferring stage comes after the fusing stage. True/False
False. It comes after the developing stage.
Q.8 – 2 IDE controllers can be attached to a motherboard. True/False
True
Q.9 – The default port used for HTTP is 82. True/False
False. The default port is TCP port 80
Q.10 – 2 IDE controllers on your system indicates that you can have two hard drives. True/False
False. It indicates that you can have 4 hard drives.
Q.11 – In the laser printing process, the primary purpose of the transfer corona is to charge the paper so that the toner sticks to it. True/False
True
Q.12 – In an EP laser printer, to transfer the toner to the paper +600VDC voltage is required. True/False
True
Q.13 – Having a Heat sink and fan in your computer are the most common methods of cooling the CPU. True/False
True
Q.14 – USB stands for Unified Serial Bus. True/False
False. It stands for Universal Serial Bus
Q.15 – Grayware is a type of Malware. True/False
True
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: Comptia Exam Preparation: A plus Essentials – 15 True/False Questions
Implementing, Managing and Maintaining a Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Question 1# – You had sometime back implemented a RAS server for receiving requests from the dial-in connections. Lately you have been receiving complaints that some connections are getting rejected for no reason and connections are very slow. You implement another RAS server but this does not help the situation to a great extent although the number of complaints have reduced by 25%.
What should you do?
A. Implement 2 RAS s servers instead of just one
B. Since the complaints have reduce 25% with addition of one RAS server you need 4 servers totally to reduce complaint by 100%
C. Implement a RADIUS server that takes over the responsibility of authentication from the RAS server
D. Implement IIS server
_____________________
Question 2# – You are on the SOA (Start Of Authority) tab of the DNS server DNS1 on which you wish to configure the zone transfer with another DNS server DNS2 every once in 8 hours. Which of the following options will help you configure the DNS zone transfer between the two servers?
A. Refresh Interval
B. Retry Attempts
C. Retry Interval
D. Expiration
_____________________
Question 3# – When pushing software updates to all the clients on the network from a designated server, which of the following settings on the GPO needs to configured?
A. Audit Object Access settings
B. Specify intranet Microsoft update service location
C. Specify internet Microsoft update service location
D. Automatic Update settings
_____________________
Question 4# – You have just created some DNS zones in your network. So far you just had one Primary DNS and one Secondary DNS. The replication was very smooth and trouble free. You now wish that zone transfer and updates on the network happen equally smooth after the zones have been created.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the zones are all Active Directory integrated
B. Ensure all the DNS servers are running on the Domain controllers
C. Ensure all DNS servers are running on member servers
D. Avoid using zones
_____________________
Question 5# – You are required to change some setting that have been set by the previous administrator for the IPSec policies. Which of the following would you use to manage this?
A. IP Security Monitor Console
B. Microsoft Management Console
C. Network Monitor utility
D. IPSec utility
_____________________
Question 6# – You are required to apply certain security update changes based on the already existing ones in your network. Which of the following would you use to analyze what exists and what needs to be applied?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
B. IP Security Monitor Console
C. Network Monitor
D. Baseline setting of the relevant GPO
_____________________
Question 7# – You wish to keep your DNS server database up-to-date and free of unnecessary records. Which of the following options will help you to maintain the DNS database as desired?
A. Tombstone
B. Aging and scavenging
C. DDNS
D. Secure updates
_____________________
Question 8# – Your network consists of a single domain with one DNS Windows Server 2003. The DNS server hosts a standard primary zone. Users report that the response time for the network seems slow. Using Network Monitor to examine the network traffic, you find that an abnormal amount of traffic is passing between the DNS server and DNS clients.
Which tool would best help you ascertain the cause of excess traffic?
A. System Monitor
B. Event Viewer
C. Tracert
D. Security Monitor
_____________________
Question 9# – You are in the process of expanding the Remote access network as your company is fast acquiring smaller companies across the world.
The company’s written policy states that all Remote Access Servers must have the same security policy settings. Whenever any amendments will be made to these policies written or otherwise will have to be reflected on all the servers at one go to ensure that the administrative time for the said task is kept to the minimum. What should you do?
A. Use RADIUS
B. Use RRAS
C. Use IIS
D. Use Certificate Servers
_____________________
Question 10# – You need to configure updates for your network. Your network consists of 100 Windows Server 2003 DCs and 48 Windows 2003 member servers. There are about 2500 clients. Which of the following would be an ideal and efficient method for implementing an automated process of software updates?
Each choice statement presents a part of the solution. Choose two statements to arrive at a complete solution
A. Configure Software Update Service (SUS) along with Group Policy Objects (GPO).
B. Configure Automatic Updates on all Domain Controllers and clients
C. Configure Automatic Update on the Root DC and ensure the rest do not connect to the Internet at all
D. Ensure only the critical DCs connect to the Microsoft site for Updates and a designated server pushes the update to the rest of the computers on the network
_____________________
ANSWERS
Question 1# – Correct Answers: C
Question 2# – Correct Answers: A
Question 3# – Correct Answers: B
Question 4# – Correct Answers: A
Question 5# – Correct Answers: A
Question 6# – Correct Answers: A
Question 7# – Correct Answers: B
Question 8# – Correct Answers: A
Question 9# – Correct Answers: A
Question 10# – Correct Answers: A,D
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: 10 Multiple choice practice questions Certification MCSA Microsoft Exam: 70-291
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Question 1# – Which program do we use to edit and configure programs that launch at startup?
A. Msconfig.exe
B. Regedit.exe / regedt32.exe
C. Cmd
_____________________
Question 2# – Which of the following components will hold a charge even through power has been removed?
A. Transistor
B. Capacitor
C. rectifier
_____________________
Question 3# – Your client’s computer refuses to connect to the network. You observe the NIC light is not ON and then use a different cable. What should you do next?
A. Attempt to log in to the server after again observing the NIC light status
B. Replace NIC
C. Replace NIC driver
D. Consider it fixed
_____________________
Question 4# – you have installed an external device but your computer isn’t recognizing it. What are some questions you should ask yourself and/or do?
A. Is the device plug and play?
B. Turn the computer and device off. Wait and then turn the device on. And then the computer.
C. Is the device connected properly to the computer?
D. All the above
_____________________
Question 5# – You have been working on your computer the day installing a new hard drive and now notice the light on the floppy drive is lit when you powered on the computer. What is the problem?
A. The hard drive is installed the wrong way
B. The data cable of the floppy drive is installed backwards
C. Only one end of the floppy drive cable has been installed
_____________________
Question 6# – what are hot swappable devices?
A. Devices that can be added or removed while the computer is on and working
B. Devices that can be added without the need of drivers
C. Devices that have a USB connection there you can hot swap them on the same USB port on the computer
_____________________
Question 7# – what are the benefits of cleaning the computer on the inside? Choose all that apply
A. provides better system cooling
B. reduces the risk of components failure
C. increases data transfer speed
D. all the above
_____________________
Question 8# – You are about to install a second IDE hard drive in a PC that has only one IDE adapter. Your first hard drive will still be the boot drive. How should the second drive be configured?
A. as a master
B. as a secondary
C. as a slave
D. as a primary
_____________________
Question 9# – TSR stands for?
A. Terminate and Stay Resident
B. Transmit-Send-Receive
C. Test and Set RAM
D. Terminate and Save Register contents
_____________________
Question 10# – You have just printed a document on a laser printer but its come out with a wavy image. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. Defective laser scanner
B. Defective rollers
C. Defective corona
D. Defective toner cartridge
_____________________
ANSWERS
Question 1 – Correct Answers: A
Question 2 – Correct Answers: B
Question 3 – Correct Answers: A
Question 4 – Correct Answers: D
Question 5 – Correct Answers: B
Question 6 – Correct Answers: A
Question 7 – Correct Answers: A,B
Question 8 – Correct Answers: C
Question 9 – Correct Answers: A
Question 10 – Correct Answers: A
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: 10 Practice Questions Comptia Exams A+ IT Technician
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 15 True/False exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Q.1 – WEP is used to secure wireless data transmissions. True/False
Q.2 -Changing the Boot Order in DOS allows you to change the drive the computer first looks for when booting. True/False
Q.3 -Overclocking refers to running your processor at a higher speed that a manufacturer recommends. True/False
Q.4 – The file attribute ‘r’ represents a ‘restored’file. True/False
Q.5 – SRAM is static and needs constant refreshing. True/False
Q.6 – A 10BaseT cable has a maximum distance span of 100 meters. True/False
Q.7 – When all components on the PC are turned off, including the hard disk drive, CMOS, RAM, display and CPU to save battery power, this is called hibernation. True/False
Q.8 – If you install a new software on your system and the system begins to malfunction, you can correct this by ‘rolling back’ the system to a previous restore point. True/False
Q.9 – If you delete a file and hold down the shift key while pressing delete, the file will be deleted and won’t go into the recycle bin. True/False
Q.10 – The file system most commonly encounted on a Linux system is EXT2. True/False
Q.11 – ROM doesn’t lose data when you switch the computer off. True/False
Q.12 – Bus Mastering allows a controller on the bus to talk to other devices without going through the CPU. True/False
Q.13 – A Firewall can be either software or hardware. True/False
Q.14 – MSconfig holds the data before processing it. True/False
Q.15 – The memory type SO-DIMM would most likely be used in a laptop computer. True/False
——————————————————————————–
Comptia Exam Questions A plus Essentials Answers
The questions along with the answers are included in this comptia exam questions prep for your better convenience
Q.1 – WEP is used to secure wireless data transmissions. True/False
True
Q.2 -Changing the Boot Order in DOS allows you to change the drive the computer first looks for when booting. True/False
False. The Boot Order is changed in CMOS
Q.3 -Overclocking refers to running your processor at a higher speed that a manufacturer recommends. True/False
True
Q.4 – The file attribute ‘r’ represents a ‘restored’file. True/False
False. It represents a ‘read only’ file.
Q.5 – SRAM is static and needs constant refreshing. True/False
False. SRAM is static and doesn’t need to be constantly refreshed.
Q.6 – A 10BaseT cable has a maximum distance span of 100 meters. True/False
True
Q.7 – When all components on the PC are turned off, including the hard disk drive, CMOS, RAM, display and CPU to save battery power, this is called hibernation. True/False
True
Q.8 – If you install a new software on your system and the system begins to malfunction, you can correct this by ‘rolling back’ the system to a previous restore point. True/False
True
Q.9 – If you delete a file and hold down the shift key while pressing delete, the file will be deleted and won’t go into the recycle bin. True/False
True
Q.10 – The file system most commonly encounted on a Linux system is EXT2. True/False
True
Q.11 – ROM doesn’t lose data when you switch the computer off. True/False
True
Q.12 – Bus Mastering allows a controller on the bus to talk to other devices without going through the CPU. True/False
True
Q.13 – A Firewall can be either software or hardware. True/False
True
Q.14 – MSconfig holds the data before processing it. True/False
False. The Registers hold the CPU data.
Q.15 – The memory type SO-DIMM would most likely be used in a laptop computer. True/False
True
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: Comptia Exam Preparation: A plus Essentials – 15 questions
Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….
* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity
Here are 10 Multiple Choice exams questions for you to practice on:
______________________________
Question 1# – Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router? (choose all that apply)
A. HTTP
B. Aux Port
C. Console
D. LLC
E. Telnet
F. SNMP
_____________________
Question 2# – Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?
A. They both require the enable password
B. User exec is a subset of the privileged exec
C. The ‘?’ only works in Privileged exec
D. They are identical
_____________________
Question 3# – This modem standard has a speed of 28.8k and has error-correction features.
A. V.42
B. V.32bis
C. V.90
D. V.34
_____________________
Questions 4# – What would be the proper command to set a DCE clock rate of 56k for a serial interface?
A. Router (config) # clockrate 56000
B. Router# clockrate 56000.
C. Router (config-if) #clock rate 56000
D. Router (config-if) # clockrate 56k
_____________________
Question 5# – What is an example of a MAC address?
A. Az32:6362:2434
B. BA:281x:8288
C. 101:354:665:8734:ffd6:8023
D. A625:cbdf:6525
_____________________
Question 6# – Which command does not show that two devices are failing to route packets between them successfully?
A. show interface
B. trace
C. telnet
D. ping
_____________________
Question 7# – You are designing a network which needs to support 200 users. You don’t plan to extend the segment beyond the current number of users. Which subnet mask would best meet your needs? Select the best answer.
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.224.0.0
E. 255.255.255.200
_____________________
Question 8# – MAC is to Ethernet what ________ is to Frame Relay.
A. DLCI
B. LCI
C. PVC
D. None of the above
_____________________
Question 9# – The 802.2 frame specifies a type whereas 802.3 frame specifies a length:
A. True
B. False
_____________________
Question 10# – What is used to see if a client is still connected to a NetWare server?
A. Spoofing TCP/SAP
B. Watchdog packet
C. GNS Round Robin
D. DNS Round Robin
_____________________
ANSWERS
Question 1 – Correct Answers: B,C,E
Question 2 – Correct Answers: B
Question 3 – Correct Answers: A
Question 4 – Correct Answers: C
Question 5 – Correct Answers: D
Question 6 – Correct Answers: A
Question 7 – Correct Answers: B
Question 8 – Correct Answers: A
Question 9 – Correct Answers: A
Question 10 – Correct Answers: B
__________________
By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.
Article Source: 10 practice questions for Free CCNA Practice Exam: 640-802