Posts Tagged ‘practice questions’

Solving many practice questions after you study the CCNA theory is the way to go for mastering the CCNA material and get prepared for passing the exam. The following practice exam questions are for the Cisco CCNA 640-802 exam and will definitely help you towards your certification efforts.

Question 1: What command will show you the routed protocols running on your Cisco router?
Answer: show protocols

Question 2: What type of cable should you use to connect to the console port of a Cisco router?
Answer: Rollover cable

Question 3: What type of ethernet cable should you use to connect a Hub and a Switch or two Switches?
Answer: Crossover cable

Question4: RIP uses bandwidth and delay to the determine the best path to a destination network (True/False)
Answer: False. RIP uses only hop count

Question 5: Which statement about MAC addresses is correct?

A. The MAC address can never be changed.
B. A MAC address is represented by binary digits that are organized in pairs.
C. A MAC address is a number in hexadecimal format that is physically located on the NIC.
D. It is not necessary for a device to have a unique MAC address to participate in the network.

Answer: C

Question 6: Which of the following is an IOS command that can be used to increase the security of unused switch ports?

A. Port security
B. Mac-secure
C. Firewall
D. Shutdown

Answer: D

Question 7: IP addresses are represented by:

A. 16-bit decimal numbers
B. 32-bit binary numbers
C. 8 sets of 4-bit decimal numbers
D. 8-bit binary numbers

Answer: B

Question 8: What does the command ip route 192.168.50.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.1.3 specify?

A. The router should use network 192.168.50.0 to get to address 10.2.1.3.
B. Both 192.168.50.0 and 10.2.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.
C. You want the router to trace a route to network 192.168.50.0 via 10.2.1.3.
D. The router should use address 10.2.1.3 to get to devices on network 192.168.50.0.

Answer: D

Question 9: Which of the following protocols is an example of an exterior gateway protocol?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

Question 10: What does the configuration register 0×2102 do?
Answer: Instructs the router to look in NVRAM for the boot sequence.

Harris Andrea is a Cisco Certified Professional (CCNA, CCNP, CCSP) with more than 10 years experience in the networking field.

Harris recommends the following CCNA Computer Based Training (CCNA CBT ) package to help you pass your CCNA exam Guaranteed.

A CCNA Video Training is the best option for preparing for certification.

Article Source: 10 Cisco CCNA Practice Questions: CCNA 640-802 Practice Exam Questions

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Practice is the mother of learning. After studying your textbooks and learn the theory for the CCNA syllabus, the best approach to assimilate and strengthen your knowledge is to solve many practice questions and study test exams. This article provides ten practice questions which focus on a wide range of topics that you need to learn for passing your CCNA exam.

QUESTION 1: Which of the following CLI prompts indicates that you are working in privileged EXEC mode?

A. Hostname>
B. Hostname#
C. Hostname-config
D. Hostname-exec>

ANSWER: B

QUESTION 2: What command do you type to save the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?

ANSWER: copy running-config startup-config

QUESTION 3: Which information does the show vlan command display?

A. Ports that are configured as trunks
B. VMPS server configuration parameters
C. Names of the VLANs and the ports that are assigned to the VLANs
D. VTP domain parameters

ANSWER: C

QUESTION 4: What are two characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two.)

A. Proprietary
B. Similar to RIP
C. Hierarchical
D. Open Standard
E. Distance Vector Protocol

ANSWER: C, D

QUESTION 5: Which command can you type at the router prompt to verify the broadcast frequency for IGRP?

ANSWER: show ip protocols

QUESTION 6: Which command is used, and in what context, to stop routing updates from exiting a router’s serial 0 interface?

ANSWER: Router(config-router)#passive-interface s0

QUESTION 7: Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a Class C address used for 9 LANs, each with 12 hosts?

A. 255.255.255.252
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.0

ANSWER: B

QUESTION 8: Which command correctly specifies that network 10.0.0.0 is directly connected to a router that is running EIGRP?

A. Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0
B. Router(config-router)# router eigrp 10.0.0.0
C. Router(config)# network 10.0.0.0
D. Router(config)# router eigrp 10.0.0.0

ANSWER: A

QUESTION 9: What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table?

ANSWER: The switch floods the network with the frame attempting to ensure that the device receives the frame.

QUESTION 10: What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

ANSWER: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

Harris Andrea is a Cisco Certified Professional (CCNA, CCNP, CCSP) with more than 10 years experience in the networking field.

Harris recommends the following CCNA Computer Based Training (CCNA CBT ) package to help you pass your CCNA exam Guaranteed.

A Cisco CCNA Video Training is one of the best ways to study for your certification.

Article Source: Ten Practice Questions for CCNA Exam – Exam Practice for CCNA 640-802

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Success in this respected exam opens the door for ones dream job as a security expert as well as an eye catching salary. Passing the final exam is challenging as every year a lot of candidates do not prepare sufficiently and fail at the final stage. This happens when they cover everything but do not revise properly and hence lack in confidence.

This books ‘concise explanation’ will take candidates through the final weeks before the exam with a day-by-day plan covering all of the exam topics enabling them to enter the exam room with confidence. Candidates will get to know the requirements of the CISSP examination and structure their preparation accordingly. The book helps them build their understanding of myriad concepts in the Information Security domain thus integrating their existing knowledge, experience, and prior learning to easily remember the concepts.

This small and concise CISSP exam quick-revision guide provides a disciplined approach to be adopted for reviewing and revising the core concepts a month before the exam, by providing concise explanation of important concepts in all the 10 domains of the CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK). Each domain is covered in two chapters that are represented as days and each chapter contains some practice questions including a full-blown mock test for practice.

This book is for all aspirants who are planning to take the CISSP examination and obtain the coveted CISSP certification that is considered as the ‘Gold Standard’ in Information Security personal certification. The book is out now and is available from Packt. For more information, please visit www.PacktPub.com/crack-the-cissp-exam-in-21-days/book

Article Source: Prepare For The CISSP Exam In 21 Days With Packt’s New Book

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Certified Information Systems Security Professional

After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….

* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity

Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:

______________________________

Question 1# – Which element must computer evidence have to be admissible in court?

A.) It must be relevant
B.) It must be annotated
C.) It must be printed
D.) t must contain source code

_____________________

Question 2# – What principle requires that a user be given no more privilege then necessary to perform a job?

A. Principle of aggregate privilege.
B. Principle of most privilege.
C. Principle of effective privilege.
D. Principle of least privilege.

_____________________

Question 3# – One method to simplify the administration of access controls is to group

A. Capabilities and privileges
B. Objects and subjects
C. Programs and transactions
D. Administrators and managers

_____________________

Question 4# – What is the act of willfully changing data, using fraudulent input or removal of controls called?

A. Data diddling
B. Data contaminating
C. Data capturing
D. Data trashing

_____________________

Question 5# – What should be the size of a Trusted Computer Base?

A. Small – in order to permit it to be implemented in all critical system components without using excessive resources.

B. Small – in order to facilitate the detailed analysis necessary to prove that it meets design requirements.

C. Large – in order to accommodate the implementation of future updates without incurring the time and expense of recertification.

D. Large – in order to enable it to protect the potentially large number of resources in a typical commercial system environment.

_____________________

Question 6# – What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in which it is installed?

A.) Configuration error
B.) Environmental error
C.) Access validation error
D.) Exceptional condition handling error

_____________________

Question 7# – Which one of the following describes a reference monitor?

A. Access control concept that refers to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects.

B. Audit concept that refers to monitoring and recording of all accesses to objects by subjects.

C. Identification concept that refers to the comparison of material
supplied by a user with its reference profile.

D. Network control concept that distributes the authorization of subject accesses to objects.

_____________________

Question 8# – Fault tolerance countermeasures are designed to combat threats to

A.) an uninterruptible power supply
B.) backup and retention capability
C.) design reliability
D.) data integrity

_____________________

Question 9# – The Common Criteria construct which allows prospective consumers or developers to create standardized sets of security requirements to meet there needs is

A. a Protection Profile (PP).
B. a Security Target (ST).
C. an evaluation Assurance Level (EAL).
D. a Security Functionality Component Catalog (SFCC).

_____________________

Question 10# – According to Common Criteria, what can be described as an intermediate combination of security requirement components?

A.) Protection profile (PP)
B.) Security target (ST)
C.) Package
D.) The Target of Evaluation (TOE)

_____________________

ANSWERS

Question 11# – Correct Answers: A
Question 12# – Correct Answers: D
Question 13# – Correct Answers: B
Question 14# – Correct Answers: A
Question 15# – Correct Answers: B
Question 16# – Correct Answers: B
Question 17# – Correct Answers: A
Question 18# – Correct Answers: C
Question 19# – Correct Answers: A
Question 20# – Correct Answers: C

__________________

By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.

Article Source: CISSP Practice Exam – 10 practice questions

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Implementing, Managing and Maintaining a Server 2003 Network Infrastructure

After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….

* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity

Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:

______________________________

Question 1# – You had sometime back implemented a RAS server for receiving requests from the dial-in connections. Lately you have been receiving complaints that some connections are getting rejected for no reason and connections are very slow. You implement another RAS server but this does not help the situation to a great extent although the number of complaints have reduced by 25%.

What should you do?

A. Implement 2 RAS s servers instead of just one

B. Since the complaints have reduce 25% with addition of one RAS server you need 4 servers totally to reduce complaint by 100%

C. Implement a RADIUS server that takes over the responsibility of authentication from the RAS server

D. Implement IIS server

_____________________

Question 2# – You are on the SOA (Start Of Authority) tab of the DNS server DNS1 on which you wish to configure the zone transfer with another DNS server DNS2 every once in 8 hours. Which of the following options will help you configure the DNS zone transfer between the two servers?

A. Refresh Interval
B. Retry Attempts
C. Retry Interval
D. Expiration

_____________________

Question 3# – When pushing software updates to all the clients on the network from a designated server, which of the following settings on the GPO needs to configured?

A. Audit Object Access settings
B. Specify intranet Microsoft update service location
C. Specify internet Microsoft update service location
D. Automatic Update settings

_____________________

Question 4# – You have just created some DNS zones in your network. So far you just had one Primary DNS and one Secondary DNS. The replication was very smooth and trouble free. You now wish that zone transfer and updates on the network happen equally smooth after the zones have been created.

What should you do?

A. Ensure that the zones are all Active Directory integrated

B. Ensure all the DNS servers are running on the Domain controllers

C. Ensure all DNS servers are running on member servers

D. Avoid using zones

_____________________

Question 5# – You are required to change some setting that have been set by the previous administrator for the IPSec policies. Which of the following would you use to manage this?

A. IP Security Monitor Console
B. Microsoft Management Console
C. Network Monitor utility
D. IPSec utility

_____________________

Question 6# – You are required to apply certain security update changes based on the already existing ones in your network. Which of the following would you use to analyze what exists and what needs to be applied?

A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
B. IP Security Monitor Console
C. Network Monitor
D. Baseline setting of the relevant GPO

_____________________

Question 7# – You wish to keep your DNS server database up-to-date and free of unnecessary records. Which of the following options will help you to maintain the DNS database as desired?

A. Tombstone
B. Aging and scavenging
C. DDNS
D. Secure updates

_____________________

Question 8# – Your network consists of a single domain with one DNS Windows Server 2003. The DNS server hosts a standard primary zone. Users report that the response time for the network seems slow. Using Network Monitor to examine the network traffic, you find that an abnormal amount of traffic is passing between the DNS server and DNS clients.

Which tool would best help you ascertain the cause of excess traffic?

A. System Monitor
B. Event Viewer
C. Tracert
D. Security Monitor

_____________________

Question 9# – You are in the process of expanding the Remote access network as your company is fast acquiring smaller companies across the world.

The company’s written policy states that all Remote Access Servers must have the same security policy settings. Whenever any amendments will be made to these policies written or otherwise will have to be reflected on all the servers at one go to ensure that the administrative time for the said task is kept to the minimum. What should you do?

A. Use RADIUS
B. Use RRAS
C. Use IIS
D. Use Certificate Servers

_____________________

Question 10# – You need to configure updates for your network. Your network consists of 100 Windows Server 2003 DCs and 48 Windows 2003 member servers. There are about 2500 clients. Which of the following would be an ideal and efficient method for implementing an automated process of software updates?

Each choice statement presents a part of the solution. Choose two statements to arrive at a complete solution

A. Configure Software Update Service (SUS) along with Group Policy Objects (GPO).

B. Configure Automatic Updates on all Domain Controllers and clients

C. Configure Automatic Update on the Root DC and ensure the rest do not connect to the Internet at all

D. Ensure only the critical DCs connect to the Microsoft site for Updates and a designated server pushes the update to the rest of the computers on the network

_____________________

ANSWERS

Question 1# – Correct Answers: C
Question 2# – Correct Answers: A
Question 3# – Correct Answers: B
Question 4# – Correct Answers: A
Question 5# – Correct Answers: A
Question 6# – Correct Answers: A
Question 7# – Correct Answers: B
Question 8# – Correct Answers: A
Question 9# – Correct Answers: A
Question 10# – Correct Answers: A,D

__________________

By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.

Article Source: 10 Multiple choice practice questions Certification MCSA Microsoft Exam: 70-291

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After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….

* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity

Here are 10 Multiple choice exams questions for you to practice on:

______________________________

Question 1# – Which program do we use to edit and configure programs that launch at startup?

A. Msconfig.exe
B. Regedit.exe / regedt32.exe
C. Cmd

_____________________

Question 2# – Which of the following components will hold a charge even through power has been removed?

A. Transistor
B. Capacitor
C. rectifier

_____________________

Question 3# – Your client’s computer refuses to connect to the network. You observe the NIC light is not ON and then use a different cable. What should you do next?

A. Attempt to log in to the server after again observing the NIC light status
B. Replace NIC
C. Replace NIC driver
D. Consider it fixed

_____________________

Question 4# – you have installed an external device but your computer isn’t recognizing it. What are some questions you should ask yourself and/or do?

A. Is the device plug and play?
B. Turn the computer and device off. Wait and then turn the device on. And then the computer.
C. Is the device connected properly to the computer?
D. All the above

_____________________

Question 5# – You have been working on your computer the day installing a new hard drive and now notice the light on the floppy drive is lit when you powered on the computer. What is the problem?

A. The hard drive is installed the wrong way
B. The data cable of the floppy drive is installed backwards
C. Only one end of the floppy drive cable has been installed

_____________________

Question 6# – what are hot swappable devices?

A. Devices that can be added or removed while the computer is on and working

B. Devices that can be added without the need of drivers

C. Devices that have a USB connection there you can hot swap them on the same USB port on the computer

_____________________

Question 7# – what are the benefits of cleaning the computer on the inside? Choose all that apply

A. provides better system cooling
B. reduces the risk of components failure
C. increases data transfer speed
D. all the above

_____________________

Question 8# – You are about to install a second IDE hard drive in a PC that has only one IDE adapter. Your first hard drive will still be the boot drive. How should the second drive be configured?

A. as a master
B. as a secondary
C. as a slave
D. as a primary

_____________________

Question 9# – TSR stands for?

A. Terminate and Stay Resident
B. Transmit-Send-Receive
C. Test and Set RAM
D. Terminate and Save Register contents

_____________________

Question 10# – You have just printed a document on a laser printer but its come out with a wavy image. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. Defective laser scanner
B. Defective rollers
C. Defective corona
D. Defective toner cartridge

_____________________

ANSWERS

Question 1 – Correct Answers: A
Question 2 – Correct Answers: B
Question 3 – Correct Answers: A
Question 4 – Correct Answers: D
Question 5 – Correct Answers: B
Question 6 – Correct Answers: A
Question 7 – Correct Answers: A,B
Question 8 – Correct Answers: C
Question 9 – Correct Answers: A
Question 10 – Correct Answers: A

__________________

By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.

Article Source: 10 Practice Questions Comptia Exams A+ IT Technician

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Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

After you study your text books it is important to test your newly acquired knowledge and see just how well you have absorbed the material. Practice exams….

* Reinforces what you learnt – fill in the gaps of what you missed
* Gets you used to answering questions to build confidence and familiarity

Here are 10 Multiple Choice exams questions for you to practice on:

______________________________

Question 1# – Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router? (choose all that apply)

A. HTTP
B. Aux Port
C. Console
D. LLC
E. Telnet
F. SNMP

_____________________

Question 2# – Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?

A. They both require the enable password
B. User exec is a subset of the privileged exec
C. The ‘?’ only works in Privileged exec
D. They are identical

_____________________

Question 3# – This modem standard has a speed of 28.8k and has error-correction features.

A. V.42
B. V.32bis
C. V.90
D. V.34

_____________________

Questions 4# – What would be the proper command to set a DCE clock rate of 56k for a serial interface?

A. Router (config) # clockrate 56000
B. Router# clockrate 56000.
C. Router (config-if) #clock rate 56000
D. Router (config-if) # clockrate 56k

_____________________

Question 5# – What is an example of a MAC address?

A. Az32:6362:2434
B. BA:281x:8288
C. 101:354:665:8734:ffd6:8023
D. A625:cbdf:6525

_____________________

Question 6# – Which command does not show that two devices are failing to route packets between them successfully?

A. show interface
B. trace
C. telnet
D. ping

_____________________

Question 7# – You are designing a network which needs to support 200 users. You don’t plan to extend the segment beyond the current number of users. Which subnet mask would best meet your needs? Select the best answer.

A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.224.0.0
E. 255.255.255.200

_____________________

Question 8# – MAC is to Ethernet what ________ is to Frame Relay.

A. DLCI
B. LCI
C. PVC
D. None of the above

_____________________

Question 9# – The 802.2 frame specifies a type whereas 802.3 frame specifies a length:

A. True
B. False

_____________________

Question 10# – What is used to see if a client is still connected to a NetWare server?

A. Spoofing TCP/SAP
B. Watchdog packet
C. GNS Round Robin
D. DNS Round Robin

_____________________

ANSWERS

Question 1 – Correct Answers: B,C,E
Question 2 – Correct Answers: B
Question 3 – Correct Answers: A
Question 4 – Correct Answers: C
Question 5 – Correct Answers: D
Question 6 – Correct Answers: A
Question 7 – Correct Answers: B
Question 8 – Correct Answers: A
Question 9 – Correct Answers: A
Question 10 – Correct Answers: B

__________________

By Georgie Stath – Certification Help is a beginners guide to getting certified. Also find 8 Accelerated Learning Techniques that will see you getting certified faster.

Article Source: 10 practice questions for Free CCNA Practice Exam: 640-802

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